EMT P Practice Test

Practice Questions

1.Which of the following statements regarding allergies is FALSE?

a. A type I allergic reaction can be life-threatening
b. Immunity can be natural or acquired
c. Anaphylactoid reactions are mediated by an antigen-antibody reaction
d. Immunity can be artificially induced

2. All of the following patients are at high risk of latex allergy except

a. Tollbooth operators
b. Asthmatics
c. Hairdressers
d. Patients with allergic rhinitis

3. You are called by the husband of a 25-year-old woman who has developed a severe allergic reaction to shellfish. On arrival, the woman’s face is swollen, and hives appear on her arms and legs. She complains of tightness in her neck and has difficulty breathing. The first step in treating this patient is to

a. Administer IV epinephrine
b. Transport the patient to the hospital
c. Administer high-concentration oxygen
d. Administer IV saline solution

4. All of the following drugs may be given safely in addition to epinephrine except

a. Beta agonists
b. Beta-blockers
c. Antihistamines
d. Corticosteroids

5. Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of an allergic reaction?

a. Urticaria
b. Diarrhea
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Altered mental status

6. In performing defibrillation, the paddles should be placed

a. Over the sternum
b. Over the pacemaker
c. To the right of the upper sternum and to the left of the left nipple
d. To the left of the upper sternum and to the right of the right nipple

7. In performing defibrillation, the following may be used to decrease paddle-skin interface resistance

a. Creams used in ECG monitoring
b. Pads soaked in alcohol
c. Pads soaked in water
d. Pads soaked in saline

8. In performing defibrillation, you should

a. Remove nitroglycerin patches before defibrillation
b. Place the paddles together before firing the defibrillator
c. Alternate cardiopulmonary resuscitation with defibrillation
d. Perform open air discharge of the defibrillator to remove an unwanted charge

9. The following statement regarding asynchronous cardiac pacing is FALSE

a. Asynchronous pacing is typically used in asystole
b. Asynchronous pacing may be used to control dysrhythmia
c. Asynchronous pacemakers are used more frequently than demand pacemakers
d. The asynchronous mode may be used to determine heartbeat in cases of electrocardiogram interference

10. Transcutaneous cardiac pacing should be used in

a. Patients with open wounds
b. Bradycardia
c. Cardiac arrest
d. Pulseless electrical activity

11. According to American Hospital Association guidelines, in which of the following cases is resuscitation appropriate?

a. Presence of a DNAR order
b. Septic shock
c. Asystole
d. Drug overdose

12. Which of the following statements regarding biphasic defibrillation is FALSE?

a. Biphasic defibrillation of 115 J is equivalent to 200 J monophasic defibrillation
b. Initial defibrillation should be 2 J/kg
c. Initial defibrillation should be at 360 J monophasic energy
d. The optimal current for ventricular defibrillation is 30 to 40 A

13. You are called to the home of an 88-year-old woman suffering from an acute pulmonary episode. The patient complains of extreme dyspnea. She is sitting upright but leaning forward and breathing through pursed lips; wheezing and rhonchi are evident. Initial assessment of this patient indicates that she is suffering from

b. Asthma
d. Pneumonia

14. The signs and symptoms in the patient described above are indicative of

a. Pneumonia
b. Bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. Asthma

15. Typical signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis include
a. Nonproductive cough
b. Pink or red complexion
c. Chronic cyanosis
d. Pursed-lip breathing

16. All of the following are indicated in treatment of a patient in respiratory distress except
a. Establishing an IV line
b. Applying a cardiac monitor
c. Pulse oximetry
d. Withholding oxygen

17. Which of the following letters in the acronym OPQRST used in obtaining a history in a patient in respiratory distress is INCORRECT?
a. O = onset
b. S = sensitivity
c. P = provocation
d. Q = quality

18. Which of the following is indicative of a perfusion problem?
a. Asthma
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Shock
d. Carbon monoxide poisoning

19. Which of the following statements regarding obstructive airway disease is TRUE?
a. A patient can manifest COPD and asthma at the same time
b. Patients with emphysema are referred to as “blue bloaters”
c. Patients with chronic bronchitis are referred to as “pink puffers”
d. Childhood asthma usually persists throughout adulthood

20. The wife of a 50-year-old man calls for assistance for her husband, who is having a severe asthma attack. On arrival, the patient is in respiratory distress, with loud and rapid respirations and audible wheezing. The patient’s wife states that he has recently discontinued corticosteroid therapy. After administering oxygen, the next step should be to
a. Administer CPAP
b. Administer albuterol
c. Administer BiPAP
d. Administer ketamine

21. Inspiratory wheezing in the patient described above may indicate
a. Upper airway occlusion
b. Respiratory failure
c. Secretions in the large airways
d. Pneumonia

22. A PEFR test is most often used
a. In patients in severe respiratory distress
b. In children less than 5 years of age
c. Before drug administration
d. In patients with ARDS

23. The sister of an 85-year-old woman calls for assistance, stating that she thinks her sister is having a stroke. On arrival, the patient is conscious but slightly confused and her speech is slurred. Her sister states that a few moments ago, the patient appeared disoriented and did not seem to recognize her own name; she also has a history of hypertension. The patient states that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. Proper initial treatment for this patient should include
a. Managing hypertension
b. Establishing time of symptom onset and transporting
c. Administering anticoagulant therapy
d. Performing a CT scan

24. All of the following are useful in the diagnosis of stroke except
c. Medical history
d. 50% Dextrose

25. The following statements regarding TIAs are true except
a. The signs and symptoms of a TIA are the same as those of stroke
b. A TIA is the most important predictor of a brain infarction
c. TIAs are associated with permanent neurological damage
d. Initial assessment of a patient with a TIA is the same as that of a stroke victim

EMT P Practice Test Answers